Seperation of Church and State?

dchester on 10-19-2006 at 09:29 AM said:

The founding fathers did a lot, but rights for Minorities and Women isn't among them.

To be fair, many in the Constitutional Convention wanted the abolishment of slavery to be included in the new government.

Certain states, however, would never have approved that and the Constitution would have been DOA. South Carolina was a major dissenter to the abolishment of slavery, but perhaps more important was Virginia.

Although the Constitution only needed 9 states to ratify it to become the law of the land, the belief was that the new govt had no chance of surviving without NY and VA onboard.

They DID however put 2 measures in the Constitution to limit slavery.

These are the so-called "3/5 clause," and a tax on each new slave brought to the US.

Those who prefer to portray the Founders as racist, bigots, often point to the "3/5 clause." But the point was not that slaves were considered 3/5 of a person. The actual wording is:

Representatives and direct taxes shall be apportioned among the several states which may be included within this union, according to their respective numbers, which shall be determined by adding to the whole number of free persons, including those bound to service for a term of years, and excluding Indians not taxed, three fifths of all other Persons.

The "3/5 clause" was solely an accounting device.....for determining how many representatives each state got, and how much taxes each state had to pay.

The southern states wanted it both ways; they considered slaves property, but also wanted them counted as persons, as this would boost their population. This, in turn, would increase the number of representatives in Congress from southern states.

The "3/5" clause was a way of artificially limiting the clout of the southern states.

The other limit comes from Article I, Section 9 of the Constitution:

The migration or importation of such persons as any of the states now existing shall think proper to admit, shall not be prohibited by the Congress prior to the year one thousand eight hundred and eight, but a tax or duty may be imposed on such importation, not exceeding ten dollars for each person.

This allows Congress to, starting in 1808, to abolish slavery. It also allows a tax of up to $10 per new slave brought to the US.

This, of course, places a bigger financial burden upon slave owning states. It also provided a 20 yr period for slavery to continue, during which it was hoped that the south would find a way to eliminate their dependence on slavery.

That it did not happen is another issue entirely.
 
freak on 10-19-2006 at 08:06 PM said:
Actually, those "guys in the funny hats who had a tea party and fought the British" preferred that such matters be handled by the individual States.

The 1st Amendment merely restricted the Federal Govt.

If the States wanted to name a "state religion," or require prayer in schools, then so be it.

That is, if you want to be accurate about it.

Article VI:

All Debts contracted and Engagements entered into, before the Adoption of this Constitution, shall be as valid against the United States under this Constitution, as under the Confederation.

This Constitution, and the Laws of the United States which shall be made in Pursuance thereof; and all Treaties made, or which shall be made, under the Authority of the United States, shall be the supreme Law of the Land; and the Judges in every State shall be bound thereby, any Thing in the Constitution or Laws of any State to the Contrary notwithstanding.

The Senators and Representatives before mentioned, and the Members of the several State Legislatures, and all executive and judicial Officers, both of the United States and of the several States, shall be bound by Oath or Affirmation, to support this Constitution; but no religious Test shall ever be required as a Qualification to any Office or public Trust under the United States.
 
Steve-o on 10-19-2006 at 08:37 PM said:
OK, you mean like the way Jefferson proposed this for the Virginia constitution?

"All persons shall have full and free liberty of religious opinion; nor shall any be compelled to frequent or maintain any religious institution": freedom for religion, but also freedom from religion."

In other words........

1. Everybody has the right to their opinions on religion.

2. Nobody can be forced to go to church

The mistake you're making, is that you're confusing the Federal govt for the states.

The fact that Jefferson ALSO wanted religious freedom, and no established Church in VA, is IRRELEVANT to the point.

In fact, your quote simply proves my point.

The 1st Amendment of the US Constitution prohibits the CONGRESS.

The 10th Amendment reserves all powers not granted to the Federal govt to the States, so long as the Constitution does not prohibit it to the States. And religion falls into that category.

Now, proposing the STATE constitution, Jefferson also prefers a similar prohibition upon the VA govt.

The premise holds.....this was a matter for each STATE to decide in the minds of the Founders.

MR. MADISON: Conceived this to be the most valuable amendment on the whole list; if there was any reason to restrain the government of the United States from infringing upon these essential rights, it was equally necessary that they should be secured against the state governments; he thought that if they provided against the one, it was an necessary to provide against the other, and was satisfied that it would be equally grateful to the people (from Alley, James Madison on Religious Liberty, pp. 75-76).

I would first suggest that you not rely on a separationist website to prove your point.

Secondly, and related to the above, I would suggest that you read the ACTUAL document from which that was taken before putting it forth in your argument.

Now, on to that excerpt......

Madison was NOT talking about the 1st Amendment, or ANYTHING relating to the so-called "separation of church/state."

http://memory.loc.gov/cgi-bin/ampage?collId=llac&fileName=001/llac001.db&recNum=393

The excerpt you posted was about a debate over a proposed amendment, which stated:

Article 1, section 10, between the first and second paragraph, insert "no State shall infringe the equal rights of conscience, nor the freedom of speech or of the press, nor of the right of trial by jury in criminal cases.

But, what'd the father of the Constitution think?

Yes, what did Mr. Madison think?

Just 2 days before the debate that your excerpt came from, the committee DID debate the proposed amendment that ultimately became the 1st Amendment. And they DID discuss the religious aspect.

http://memory.loc.gov/cgi-bin/ampage?collId=llac&fileName=001/llac001.db&recNum=380

Before we begin, here was the original proposed amendment:

Article I. Section 9. Between paragraphs two and three insert "no religion shall be established by law, nor shall the equal rights of conscience be infringed."

Now, the highlights........

Mr. Sylvester had some doubts of the propriety of the mode of expression used in this paragraph. He apprehended that it was liable to a construction different from what had been made by the committee. He feared it might be thought to have a tendency to abolish religion altogether.

Mr. Gerry said it would read better if it was, that no religious doctrine shall be established by law.

Mr. Sherman thought the amendment altogether unnecessary, inasmuch as Congress had no authority whatever delegated to them by the constitution to make religious establishments; he would, therefore, move to have it struck out.

Sometimes the Founders WERE a tad naive. Madison himself was guilty of this in his defense of the "general welfare" clause in the Federalist Papers.

Anyhoo, Madison now makes his opinion known:

Mr. Madison said, he apprehended the meaning of the words to be, that Congress should not establish a religion, and enforce the legal observation of it by law, nor compel men to worship God in any manner contrary to their conscience. Whether the words are necessary or not, he did not mean to say, but they had been required by some of the State Conventions, who seemed to entertain an opinion that under the clause of the constitution, which gave power to Congress to make all laws necessary and proper to carry into execution the constitution, and the laws made under it, enabled them to make laws of such a nature as might infringe the rights of conscience, and might establish a national religion; to prevent these effects he presumed the amendment was intended, and he thought it as well expressed as the nature of the language would admit.

Mr. Madison quite clearly believes the purpose of the amendment was to prevent the establishment of a national religion.

The amendment was proposed because many felt that the "necessary and proper" clause could allow Congress to make such a law. The amendment was intended to prevent that.

Mr. Huntington said that he feared, with the gentleman first up on this subject, that the words might be taken in such latitude as to be extremely harmful to the cause of religion. He understood the amendment to mean what had been expressed by the gentleman from Virginia; but others might find it convenient to put another construction upon it. The ministers of their congregations to the Eastward were maintained by the contributions of those who belonged to their society; the expense of building meeting- houses was contributed in the same manner. These things were regulated by by-laws. If an action was brought before a Federal Court on any of these cases, the person who had neglected to perform his engagements could not be compelled to do it; for a support of ministers, or building places of worship might be construed into a religious establishment.

He agrees with the "gentleman from Virginia"......ie Madison.

He goes on to state that the proposed wording might be misinterpreted, so much so that even supporting ministers or helping to build meeting houses could be determined to be an establishment of religion.

Sounds kinda familiar, doesn't it?

Mr. Huntington's thoughts go on:

By the charter of Rhode Island, no religion could be established by law; he could give a history of the effects of such a regulation; indeed the people were now enjoying the blessed fruits of it. He hoped, therefore, the amendment would be made in such a way as to secure the rights of conscience, and a free exercise of the rights of religion, but not to patronize those who professed no religion at all.

And the Father speaks again:

Mr. Madison thought, if the word national was inserted before religion, it would satisfy the minds of honorable gentlemen. He believed that the people feared one sect might obtain a pre-eminence, or two combine together, and establish a religion to which they would compel others to conform. He thought if the word national was introduced, it would point the amendment directly to the object it was intended to prevent.

So why wasn't "national religion" used?

Mr. Gerry did not like the term national, proposed by the gentleman from Virginia, and hoped it would not be adopted by the House. It brought to his mind some observations that had taken place in the convention at the time they were considering the present convention. It had been insisted upon by those who were called antifederalists, that this form of Government consolidated the Union; the honorable gentleman's motion shows that he considered it in the same light. Those who were called antifederalists at that time complained that they had injustice dome them by title, because they were in favor of a Federal Government, and the others were in favor of the national one; the federalists were for ratifying the constitution as it stood, and the others not until amendments were made. Their names then ought not to have been distinguished by federalists and antifederalists, but rats and antirats.

The problem was that one might construe "national religion" to mean that the govt was also "national." The whole point was that it was supposed to be a "Federal" govt, with the States retaining a good amount of powers.

Mr. Madison withdrew his motion, but observed that the words "no national religion shall be established by law," did not imply that the Government was a national one; the question was then taken on Mr. Livermore's motion, and passed in the affirmative, thirty-one for, and twenty against it.

So what DID Madison think?
 
SteelerFan87 on 10-20-2006 at 02:24 AM said:
And "proven scientific fact"? How has evolution been proven? The thing about it is it CAN'T be proven. It doesn't even follow the scientific method, because it is impossible to conduct an experiment to either prove or disprove it. Unless, of course, you've got a few million years to spend conducting an experiment.

Evolution is as proven as Gravity.
 
PatsDVD on 10-19-2006 at 09:36 PM said:
Or at least the posters in this thread.

In 2006, anyone advocating for teaching anything about religion in the public schools (even politically correct "let's all respect everyone's religion") is ignoring the constitution and 200+ years of judicial decisions.

Oh, the irony. Perhaps you should read the Constitution again.

And FYI, the current interpretation of the 1st Amendment is not 200+ years of established precedent........it dates to the early 1900s.
 
Steve-o on 10-19-2006 at 10:46 PM said:
more James Madison:

"It is of great importance in a republic not only to guard the society against the oppression of its rulers but to guard one part of the society against the injustice of the other part. If a majority be united by a common interest, the rights of the minority will be insecure."

Hey, thanks for agreeing with me.

Madison advocates protecting the rights of the minority.

That does not deny the majority the right to rule.

It's a basic premise of our form of govt that the majority's will prevails, so long as it does not violate the minority's rights.
 
RavenB on 10-20-2006 at 07:47 AM said:

This Constitution, and the Laws of the United States which shall be made in Pursuance thereof; and all Treaties made, or which shall be made, under the Authority of the United States, shall be the supreme Law of the Land; and the Judges in every State shall be bound thereby, any Thing in the Constitution or Laws of any State to the Contrary notwithstanding.

Okay, so how does that contradict my post?

I'll answer for you......it doesn't.

What does that section say?

It says:

1. The Constitution is the supreme law of the land.

2. JUDGES in every state shall be bound by it.

3. Anything in the Constitutions or laws of the states that are contrary to the constitution are false.

BUT.........

You must remember that the Constitution is a GRANT OF POWERS.

So, the only way in which a State is limited by the Constitution, is if the Federal govt is granted particular powers, or if the Constitution prohibits something to the states.

10th Amendment:

The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the states, are reserved to the states respectively, or to the people.

IE, there is no power granted to the Federal govt over religion.

The Constitution does not prohibit such power to the States.

Thus, it falls to the States.

There is no contradiction here.
 
dchester on 10-20-2006 at 08:54 AM said:
Newton's theory, or Einstein's theory?

Both. Einstein's theory of General Relativity is not incompatible with Newton's Law of Universal Gravitation.
 
Let me make something clear......

I'm not advocating that religion be taught in schools.

The simple fact, though is that the 1st Amendment has been abused, and people just don't know what it actually says.

I'm simply pointing out the background of the Amendment, since so many are mislead by thrown around phrases, quotes, etc taken out of context.

Religion was simply one of many things that was properly within the purview of the states.

It should be noted that most, if not all, state constitutions DO have similar prohibitions to the 1st Amendment (which was for the Federal Congress only).

The argument might be made that public schools receive Federal funds, and so religion shouldn't be involved.

Good point.

But should the Federal govt be funding public schools? It's certainly not one of the powers granted to it under the Constitution.

But that's another debate for another time.......
 
freak on 10-20-2006 at 08:53 AM said:
Oh, the irony. Perhaps you should read the Constitution again.

And FYI, the current interpretation of the 1st Amendment is not 200+ years of established precedent........it dates to the early 1900s.

Though SCOTUS decided that the 14th amendment makes the Establishment Clause binding on state & local governments, it has been argued that the restriction already existed in the Constitution, as noted above in Article VI.

"This Constitution, (edit) shall be made, under the Authority of the United States, shall be the supreme Law of the Land; and the Judges in every State shall be bound thereby, any Thing in the Constitution or Laws of any State to the Contrary notwithstanding."

I'm just saying it is certainly possible states are bound by the Establishment Clause, per the original Constitution.
 
RavenB on 10-20-2006 at 09:19 AM said:
Though SCOTUS decided that the 14th amendment makes the Establishment Clause binding on state & local governments, it has been argued that the restriction already existed in the Constitution, as noted above in Article VI.

"This Constitution, (edit) shall be made, under the Authority of the United States, shall be the supreme Law of the Land; and the Judges in every State shall be bound thereby, any Thing in the Constitution or Laws of any State to the Contrary notwithstanding."

1. SCOTUS relatively recent (early 1900s) use of the "14th in support of the 1st" is an entirely different argument.

What is true today, has no bearing on the original intent of the Amendment, which is what I've been showing.

Not to mention, the "14th in support of the 1st" is hardly a well reasoned argument.

2. I already commented on Article 6. It does NOT say that the states are subject to the federal govt in all cases.

It says merely that the Constitution is the law of the land, any laws to the contrary in the states nonwithstanding.

Thus, you have to look at what the powers granted under the Constitution, to know what the "law of the land" is.

And the "law of the land" grants no power over religion to the federal govt.

Further, the "law of the land" reserves to the states all powers not granted by the Constitution to the Feds, nor prohibited to the states.
 
freak on 10-20-2006 at 09:29 AM said:
1. SCOTUS relatively recent (early 1900s) use of the "14th in support of the 1st" is an entirely different argument.

What is true today, has no bearing on the original intent of the Amendment, which is what I've been showing.

Not to mention, the "14th in support of the 1st" is hardly a well reasoned argument.

2. I already commented on Article 6. It does NOT say that the states are subject to the federal govt in all cases.

It says merely that the Constitution is the law of the land, any laws to the contrary in the states nonwithstanding.

Thus, you have to look at what the powers granted under the Constitution, to know what the "law of the land" is.

And the "law of the land" grants no power over religion to the federal govt.

Further, the "law of the land" reserves to the states all powers not granted by the Constitution to the Feds, nor prohibited to the states.


If Congress "shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion" per the EC, and the Constitution is the law of the land "judges in every state bound by" then it would stand to reason that the states "shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion". I am aware there is debate over this, since the founding fathers are not here to explain their actions.

"Believing with you that religion is a matter which lies solely between man & his god, that he owes account to none other for his faith or his worship, that the legitimate powers of government reach actions only, and not opinions, I contemplate with sovereign reverence that act of the whole American people which declared that their legislature should make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof, thus building a wall of separation between church and state."
Jefferson, letter to the Danbury Baptists, 1802.

It is certainly possible the founding fathers did not want the states either to establish their own religions.
 
RavenB on 10-20-2006 at 09:19 AM said:
Though SCOTUS decided that the 14th amendment makes the Establishment Clause binding on state & local governments, it has been argued that the restriction already existed in the Constitution, as noted above in Article VI.

"This Constitution, (edit) shall be made, under the Authority of the United States, shall be the supreme Law of the Land; and the Judges in every State shall be bound thereby, any Thing in the Constitution or Laws of any State to the Contrary notwithstanding."


Let me explain in another way.....

What is the structure of the Constitution?

Article 1 - The Legislature
Article 2 - The Executive
Article 3 - The Judicial

Article 4 - Equal protection, admission of states

Article 5 - Amendments

Article 6 - Debts of the confederation, "law of the land," reps and judges swear oath to uphold the Constitution

Article 7 - Ratification, notes, signatures

In other words, the section you cite designates the Constitution as the law of the land.

What is the "law of the land"?

Everything that came before Article 6; ie the enumeration of powers, processes (elections, etc), and amendments.

The section you cite basically says "Everything you just read is what counts, regardless of what state constitutions may say."

And what was just read?

An enumeration of powers, processes and amendments.

The 14th Amendment doesn't even come into play, because it wasn't a part of the Constitution at the time it was written, signed, ratified, and initially amended.

And under the Constituation as written, signed, ratified, and initially amended, only the Federal govt was prohibited from making laws establishing religion.
 
RavenB on 10-20-2006 at 09:49 AM said:
If Congress "shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion" per the EC, and the Constitution is the law of the land "judges in every state bound by" then it would stand to reason that the states "shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion".

It does not stand to reason, because the "judges in every state" are bound to uphold the Constitution.

And what the Constitution said, was that CONGRESS was prohibited.

"Believing with you that religion is a matter which lies solely between man & his god, that he owes account to none other for his faith or his worship, that the legitimate powers of government reach actions only, and not opinions, I contemplate with sovereign reverence that act of the whole American people which declared that their legislature should make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof, thus building a wall of separation between church and state."
Jefferson, letter to the Danbury Baptists, 1802.

I'm surprised that this is the first time this was mentioned.

First of all, that letter was written in response to a letter that the DBA wrote to Jefferson. Most people have never read that letter. Here's the relevant part:

But Sir our constitution of government is not specific. Our ancient charter together with the Laws made coincident therewith, were adopted on the Basis of our government, at the time of our revolution; and such had been our Laws & usages, and such still are; that Religion is considered as the first object of Legislation; and therefore what religious privileges we enjoy (as a minor part of the State) we enjoy as favors granted, and not as inalienable rights: and these favors we receive at the expense of such degrading acknowledgements, as are inconsistent with the rights of freemen. It is not to be wondered at therefore; if those, who seek after power & gain under the pretense of government & Religion should reproach their fellow men — should reproach their chief Magistrate, as an enemy of religion Law & good order because he will not, dare not assume the prerogatives of Jehovah and make Laws to govern the Kingdom of Christ.

The DBA letter brings up two important points.

1. In Connecticut, there WAS an established state church. It resulted in what the Founders were trying to avoid at the Federal level....discrimination of the non established denominations.

2. To make laws to govern the Kingdom of Christ.

The DBA was commenting that those who wish to govern, should never assume to make laws governing religion.

That's the key.....protecting religion from govt interference.

Now....the Jefferson letter.

Most people don't know that Jefferson's letter was originally much longer, but he was convinced by his Attorney General, Levi Lincoln, to edit it down. Here's the original text of the portion you cite (courtesy of an FBI lab):

Believing with you that religion is a matter which lies solely between man & his god, that he owes account to none other for his faith or his worship, that the legitimate powers of government reach actions only and not opinions, I contemplate with sovereign reverence that act of the whole American people which declared that their legislature should "make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof;" thus building a wall of eternal separation between Church & State. Congress thus inhibited from acts respecting religion, and the Executive authorised only to execute their acts, I have refrained from prescribing even those occasional performances of devotion, practiced indeed by the Executive of another nation as the legal head of its church, but subject here, as religious exercises only to the voluntary regulations and discipline of each respective sect,

Jefferson was using this opportunity to make a PERSONAL statement, answering critics about why he refused to proclaim days of fasting/ thanksgiving, as King George did in England.

Further, the whole "wall of separation" was a reference to Roger Williams, a famous Baptist minister. Williams had wrote of a "wall of separation" protecting the "garden of the church" from the "wilderness of the world."

It was understood as a one-way "wall" to protect religion from govt interference.

It is certainly possible the founding fathers did not want the states either to establish their own religions.

See my response to the Danbury letter.
 
I think it's telling that "separationists".....ie those who prefer the current interpretation.....never quote the Founders in context when making their case. Many also rely on "separationist" websites, which are obviously biased from the start. They even use "quotes" that have nothing to do with the 1st Amendment (see my response to Steve-O above).
 
freak, recall Roger Williams' story.

The Massachusetts Bay Colony was, at the time, an unabashed theocracy. In order to vote you needed to be

1. Male,
2. A Property Owner, and
3. A member in good standing of a Covenented Church - that is a Puritan.

Williams was excommunicated and banishied from Mass Bay and went south to found Rhode Island.

He was in effect the Father of the Separation of Church and State.
 
SteelerFan87 on 10-19-2006 at 10:54 PM said:
There is nothing wrong with teaching students about all the major religions equally.

There's something very wrong with it.

In practice, some government agency would have to decide which religions are "major religions".

That government decision would exclude all other religious beliefs are not considered by the government to be "major religions."

Then the government would develop a curriculum and decide what should be taught about each of these "major religions" so that each is taught equally.

Then the public schools would teach that curriculum.

How could anyone think that this is constitutional?
 
PatsDVD on 10-20-2006 at 11:49 AM said:
There's something very wrong with it.

In practice, some government agency would have to decide which religions are "major religions".

That government decision would exclude all other religious beliefs are not considered by the government to be "major religions."

Then the government would develop a curriculum and decide what should be taught about each of these "major religions" so that each is taught equally.

Then the public schools would teach that curriculum.

How could anyone think that this is constitutional?
how about each child, or their parent, is given a period of time to express his religious beliefs - say 1 day followed by 2 days of open discussion where questions are asked and each student is allowed to question for themselves what is different from their religion.

this allows for a representation of each pupil with equal time, yes you could have several of one religion but and that get extra time but you generally will have this in life anyway
 
PatsDVD on 10-20-2006 at 11:49 AM said:
There's something very wrong with it.

In practice, some government agency would have to decide which religions are "major religions".

That government decision would exclude all other religious beliefs are not considered by the government to be "major religions."

Then the government would develop a curriculum and decide what should be taught about each of these "major religions" so that each is taught equally.

Then the public schools would teach that curriculum.

How could anyone think that this is constitutional?

You're right, imagine a course that taught Satanism as a part of the cirriculum. If you think this caused an outcry, imagine that. :D
 
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